Why does Joseph Smith have Lehi make such a statement as 1 Nephi 8:2? Is he equating a dream to an actual, physical vision or visitation from God?

 
  • 為什麼斯密約瑟讓李海在尼腓一書(shū)八章二節里面做了這樣的宣告?他是不是在把一個(gè)夢(mèng)等同于一個(gè)實(shí)際肉體經(jīng)歷的異象或等同于一次神的拜訪(fǎng)?
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